“PFRDA Rajbhasha Officer 2026 – Complete Preparation Guide”

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📘 PFRDA Syllabus 📝 Rajbhasha Mock Test ✍️ Translation Practice 📚 Important Terminology

📘 PFRDA Rajbhasha Officer – Syllabus

PFRDA Official Language (Rajbhasha) Stream की तैयारी करते समय निम्नलिखित क्षेत्रों पर विशेष ध्यान देना चाहिए:

• भारत सरकार की राजभाषा नीति
• हिंदी से अंग्रेजी अनुवाद
• अंग्रेजी से हिंदी अनुवाद
• विधिक शब्दावली (Legal Terminology)
• प्रशासनिक शब्दावली
• बैंकिंग शब्दावली
• पेंशन संबंधी शब्दावली
• Capital Market Terminology
• Economics Terminology
• Social Security Terminology

🎯 परीक्षा का मूल मंत्र:
सिर्फ हिंदी पढ़ना पर्याप्त नहीं है। Translation + Terminology + Rajbhasha + Financial Sector को साथ लेकर चलना होगा।

✍️ PFRDA Translation Practice

English → Hindi

The pension sector plays an important role in providing financial security to citizens after retirement. Effective regulation and supervision of pension funds are essential for protecting the interests of subscribers.

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Hindi → English

सेवानिवृत्ति के पश्चात नागरिकों को वित्तीय सुरक्षा प्रदान करने में पेंशन व्यवस्था की महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका है। पेंशन निधियों का प्रभावी विनियमन और पर्यवेक्षण अभिदाताओं के हितों की रक्षा के लिए आवश्यक है।

⏱️ Challenge: दोनों passages के लिए 10 मिनट

🔥 PFRDA Rajbhasha Mock Test Series

अब केवल पढ़ना नहीं — परीक्षा देकर अपनी तैयारी जांचिए!

Rajbhasha • Translation • Legal Terminology • Banking • Pension

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🎯 PFRDA Rajbhasha 2026 में सफलता का संकल्प

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भाषा शिक्षण – सीखने और सिखाने की एक पहल

BHASHA SHIKSHAN IBPS(SO) CURRENT AFFAIRS AND GS MOCK TEST - 01

38 High-Yield Current Affairs & GK MCQs

Practice Test for UPSC CSE, IBPS SO, State PSCs & Railways

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Review your responses below with detailed explanations.

Question 1 Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements regarding the powers and jurisdiction of the Election Commission of India (ECI):
1. The power to derecognize or register political parties stems from Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. The Election Commission of India has the explicit statutory power to derecognize a registered political party if it violates the Constitution.
3. The Supreme Court established that the ECI can exercise residual inherent powers under Article 324 in the absence of explicit executive/legislative laws (Mohinder Singh Gill case).

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Under Section 29A of the RPA 1951, ECI registers political parties. In INC vs. Institute of Social Welfare (2002), the Supreme Court ruled that ECI does not have statutory power to derecognize a party except under specific conditions. Article 324 gives ECI plenary powers where law is silent (Mohinder Singh Gill, 1978).

Question 2 Polity & Governance

Which of the following Constitutional Amendments inserted Article 15(6) and Article 16(6) to provide reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)?

(a) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (b) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act (c) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act (d) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act

Correct Answer: (c) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation: The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 introduced 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) among unreserved categories by inserting Article 15(6) and Article 16(6).

Question 3 Polity & Governance

With reference to the Delimitation Commission of India, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court.
2. The recommendations/orders of the Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, which can suggest modifications.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: Orders of the Delimitation Commission are final and cannot be challenged in any court (Article 329). While laid before legislative bodies, no modifications or amendments are permissible by them.

Question 4 Railways & Infrastructure

What is the primary purpose of 'KAVACH 4.0', recently deployed on key divisions of Indian Railways?

(a) High-speed freight corridor automation system (b) Indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system (c) AI-powered biometric ticketing system (d) Automated track assessment drone fleet

Correct Answer: (b) Indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system
Explanation: Kavach 4.0 is the latest upgraded Automatic Train Protection system designed to prevent Signal Passing at Danger (SPAD) and automatic braking.

Question 5 Railways & Infrastructure

Consider the following statements regarding Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs) in India:
1. Eastern DFC stretches from Ludhiana (Punjab) to Dankuni (West Bengal).
2. Western DFC links Dadri (UP) to JNPT (Maharashtra).
3. DFCCIL is a statutory body established directly under an Act of Parliament.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: DFCCIL is a Public Sector Undertaking incorporated under the Companies Act, not a statutory body directly created by Parliament.

Question 6 Railways & Infrastructure

Which railway manufacturing unit in India is responsible for rolling out the first batch of LHB-design coaches exported to Bangladesh Railways?

(a) Integral Coach Factory (ICF), Chennai (b) Rail Coach Factory (RCF), Kapurthala (c) Modern Coach Factory (MCF), Raebareli (d) Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW)

Correct Answer: (b) Rail Coach Factory (RCF), Kapurthala
Explanation: RCF Kapurthala manufactures and exports LHB passenger coaches to international rail networks, including Bangladesh Railway.

Question 7 Ram Mandir Trust & Heritage

Who among the following serves as the ex-officio Trustee of the Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra Trust established by the Government of India?

(a) Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh (b) District Magistrate (DM) of Ayodhya (c) Governor of Uttar Pradesh (d) Union Home Secretary

Correct Answer: (b) District Magistrate (DM) of Ayodhya
Explanation: As per the trust rules, the DM of Ayodhya serves as ex-officio trustee (provided they belong to the Hindu faith, otherwise ADM fills the role).

Question 8 Ram Mandir Trust & Heritage

The architecture of the newly constructed Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Temple in Ayodhya primarily belongs to which traditional style of Indian temple architecture?

(a) Dravida style (b) Vesara style (c) Nagara style (d) Kalinga style

Correct Answer: (c) Nagara style
Explanation: The temple is designed in the traditional North Indian Nagara style of architecture featuring raised plinths, Mandapas, and grand Shikharas.

Question 9 Ram Mandir Trust & Heritage

The Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra Trust was constituted pursuant to the landmark Supreme Court judgment delivered under which Article of the Constitution to do 'complete justice'?

(a) Article 136 (b) Article 141 (c) Article 142 (d) Article 143

Correct Answer: (c) Article 142
Explanation: The Supreme Court invoked Article 142 ("plenary power to do complete justice") while granting instructions to formulate a scheme for the trust.

Question 10 Defence & Security

What is 'Project Seabird', often mentioned in the news regarding naval infrastructure development in India?

(a) Deep-sea mining defense initiative (b) Construction of Karwar Naval Base in Karnataka (c) Nuclear submarine development project (d) Anti-submarine radar shield

Correct Answer: (b) Construction of Karwar Naval Base in Karnataka
Explanation: Project Seabird is one of India's largest naval infrastructure initiatives, developing a deep-water naval base at Karwar, Karnataka.

Question 11 Defence & Security

With reference to the 'Astra' Missile system, consider the following statements:
1. It is an indigenous Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM).
2. It was developed by DRDO.
3. It utilizes solid-propellant rocket motor technology.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: All statements are correct. Astra is DRDO's state-of-the-art BVRAAM missile for air superiority fighters.

Question 12 Defence & Security

India's tri-services 'Defence Cyber Agency' (DCyA) operates under the administrative control of which organization?

(a) MeitY (b) National Security Council Secretariat (c) HQ Integrated Defence Staff (IDS) (d) R&AW

Correct Answer: (c) HQ Integrated Defence Staff (IDS)
Explanation: The Defence Cyber Agency (DCyA) is a tri-service command operating directly under Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff (IDS).

Question 13 Space & Technology

ISRO's mission 'EOS-05' (GISAT-1A) launched aboard GSLV is designed to function primarily from which orbit?

(a) Low Earth Orbit (LEO) (b) Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO) (c) Geosynchronous Orbit (GEO) (d) Medium Earth Orbit (MEO)

Correct Answer: (c) Geosynchronous Orbit (GEO)
Explanation: EOS-05 functions from GEO (~36,000 km altitude) to allow near-real-time continuous observation of the Indian subcontinent.

Question 14 Space & Technology

What is the primary operational goal of ISRO's 'SpaDeX' mission?

(a) Autonomous docking demonstration of two spacecraft (b) Deep-space Venus orbiter mission (c) NGLV heavy launcher testing (d) Human spaceflight heat-shield validation

Correct Answer: (a) Autonomous docking demonstration of two spacecraft
Explanation: SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) demonstrates in-orbit autonomous docking technology required for building the Bharatiya Antariksha Station.

Question 15 Space & Technology

Consider the following pairs of ISRO launch vehicles and operational features:
1. PSLV: 4-stage vehicle with alternating solid and liquid propulsion.
2. LVM3: 3-stage heavy launch vehicle equipped with Cryogenic Upper Stage.
3. SSLV: 3 solid propulsion stages with a liquid Velocity Trimming Module.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: All 3 pairs correctly match the vehicle specifications designed by ISRO.

Question 16 Literature & Awards

Which non-fiction book won the Valley of Words (VoW) Book Award 2026 under the English Non-Fiction category?

(a) The Hindi Heartland: A Study by Ghazala Wahab (b) Our Friends in Good Houses by Rahul Pandita (c) Father Tongue, Motherland by Peggy Mohan (d) Sita’s Veil by Anamika

Correct Answer: (a) The Hindi Heartland: A Study by Ghazala Wahab
Explanation: Ghazala Wahab received the VoW 2026 award in English Non-Fiction for her study on the Hindi Heartland.

Question 17 Literature & Awards

The Sahitya Akademi Award is awarded annually for outstanding works in how many official languages recognized by the Akademi?

(a) 22 languages (b) 24 languages (c) 18 languages (d) 25 languages

Correct Answer: (b) 24 languages
Explanation: Sahitya Akademi recognizes 24 languages: 22 in the 8th Schedule, plus English and Rajasthani.

Question 18 Literature & Awards

Who was awarded the International Booker Prize 2024 for the novel Kairos, translated from German?

(a) Georgi Gospodinov (b) Jenny Erpenbeck (c) Han Kang (d) Samantha Harvey

Correct Answer: (b) Jenny Erpenbeck
Explanation: German author Jenny Erpenbeck and translator Michael Hofmann won the International Booker Prize 2024 for Kairos.

Question 19 Beauty Pageants & Awards

Who was crowned Miss Universe India 2026 in Jaipur, representing India at the 75th Miss Universe competition?

(a) Vaishnavi Gannesh (b) Kaziah Liz Mejo (c) Anushri Satavlekar (d) Rhea Singha

Correct Answer: (b) Kaziah Liz Mejo
Explanation: 19-year-old law student Kaziah Liz Mejo from Kerala was crowned Miss Universe India 2026 in Jaipur, Rajasthan.

Question 20 Beauty Pageants & Awards

Who was crowned Miss World 2024 (71st Edition) during the event held in Mumbai, India?

(a) Krystyna Pyszková (Czech Republic) (b) Yasmina Zaytoun (Lebanon) (c) Karolina Bielawska (Poland) (d) Sini Shetty (India)

Correct Answer: (a) Krystyna Pyszková
Explanation: Krystyna Pyszková of the Czech Republic won the 71st Miss World crown in Mumbai.

Question 21 Banking & Economy

What is the minimum capital requirement set by the RBI for setting up a Small Finance Bank (SFB) under current guidelines?

(a) ₹100 Crore (b) ₹200 Crore (c) ₹300 Crore (d) ₹500 Crore

Correct Answer: (b) ₹200 Crore
Explanation: RBI's updated guidelines for on-tap licensing require minimum capital of ₹200 crore for SFBs.

Question 22 Banking & Economy

Under the Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework of RBI, which parameters are monitored?

(a) CRAR, Net NPA Ratio, and Tier-1 Leverage Ratio (b) Repo Rate, SLR, and CRR (c) Credit Deposit Ratio & Forex (d) Gross NPA & CPI inflation

Correct Answer: (a) CRAR, Net NPA Ratio, and Tier-1 Leverage Ratio
Explanation: PCA framework monitors Capital (CRAR), Asset Quality (Net NPA), and Leverage to trigger supervisory intervention.

Question 23 Polity & Governance

Which Article grants immunity to the President and Governors from criminal proceedings during their term of office?

(a) Article 352 (b) Article 361 (c) Article 365 (d) Article 370

Correct Answer: (b) Article 361
Explanation: Article 361 provides protection and immunity to the President and Governors from criminal proceedings during their term.

Question 24 Environment & Ecology

Which sanctuary was declared India's 55th Tiger Reserve?

(a) Dholpur-Karauli (b) Veerangana Durgavati (c) Ranipur (d) Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla

Correct Answer: (d) Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla
Explanation: Located in Chhattisgarh, Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla was declared India's 55th Tiger Reserve.

Question 25 Railways & Infrastructure

The Chenab Rail Bridge, the world's highest rail arch bridge, is built under which project?

(a) Trans-Arunachal Railway Link (b) USBRL (Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla) Project (c) Char Dham Rail Link (d) Silchar-Imphal Link

Correct Answer: (b) USBRL Project
Explanation: Standing 359m above the riverbed, the Chenab bridge is built under the USBRL Project in J&K.

Question 26 Space & Science

What is the destination of NASA's 'Europa Clipper' mission launched aboard SpaceX Falcon Heavy?

(a) Titan (Moon of Saturn) (b) Europa (Moon of Jupiter) (c) Asteroid Psyche 16 (d) Lunar South Pole

Correct Answer: (b) Europa (Moon of Jupiter)
Explanation: NASA's Europa Clipper studies Jupiter's moon Europa to determine if its underground ocean could support life.

Question 27 Defence & Security

'Exercise MALABAR' is a naval exercise involving which member nations?

(a) India, France, UAE, UK (b) India, USA, Japan, Australia (c) India, Russia, China, South Africa (d) India, Singapore, Thailand, Indonesia

Correct Answer: (b) India, USA, Japan, Australia
Explanation: MALABAR exercise includes the navies of all four Quad nations.

Question 28 International Relations

Which city hosted the 16th BRICS Summit in 2024 featuring newly admitted full members?

(a) Moscow (b) St. Petersburg (c) Kazan (d) Sochi

Correct Answer: (c) Kazan
Explanation: The 16th BRICS Summit took place in Kazan, Russia.

Question 29 Literature & Awards

Who was awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature?

(a) Annie Ernaux (b) Han Kang (c) Jon Fosse (d) Louise Glück

Correct Answer: (b) Han Kang
Explanation: South Korean author Han Kang was awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature.

Question 30 Ram Mandir & Heritage

Which holy river flows along the banks of Ayodhya city near the Ram Mandir complex?

(a) Yamuna (b) Gomti (c) Saryu (d) Shipra

Correct Answer: (c) Saryu
Explanation: Ayodhya is situated on the sacred banks of the Saryu River in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 31 Banking & Economy

What is the primary function of the TReDS platform promoted by the RBI?

(a) Interbank forex settlement (b) Financing trade receivables of MSMEs (c) Auctioning T-Bills (d) NPA recoveries

Correct Answer: (b) Financing trade receivables of MSMEs
Explanation: TReDS facilitates invoice discounting and receivables financing for MSMEs.

Question 32 Polity & Governance

The 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' (106th Amendment) reserves what percentage of seats for women in Lok Sabha & State Assemblies?

(a) 25% (b) 33% (c) 50% (d) 30%

Correct Answer: (b) 33%
Explanation: The 106th Constitutional Amendment provides 33% reservation for women in Lok Sabha and Assemblies.

Question 33 Defence & Security

INS Arighat, commissioned into the Indian Navy, belongs to which class of vessels?

(a) Nuclear-powered Ballistic Missile Submarine (SSBN) (b) Stealth Guided-Missile Destroyer (c) Aircraft Carrier (d) Anti-Submarine Corvette

Correct Answer: (a) Nuclear-powered Ballistic Missile Submarine (SSBN)
Explanation: INS Arighat is India's second Arihant-class SSBN strengthening India's nuclear triad.

Question 34 Space & Science

Which instrument aboard Aditya-L1 observes the Solar Corona in optical wavelengths?

(a) VELC (Visible Emission Line Coronagraph) (b) SUIT (c) PAPA (d) HEL1OS

Correct Answer: (a) VELC
Explanation: VELC is the main payload on Aditya-L1 designed to observe the solar corona.

Question 35 Beauty Pageants & Awards

Who represented India and won the Miss Supranational 2023 title?

(a) Pragnya Ayyagari (b) Sonal Kukreja (c) Divita Rai (d) Adline Castelino

Correct Answer: (a) Pragnya Ayyagari
Explanation: Pragnya Ayyagari earned international honors for India at Miss Supranational.

Question 36 Railways & Transport

What is the maximum operational speed capacity designed for Vande Bharat Express trains?

(a) 130 km/h (b) 160 km/h (c) 180 km/h (d) 220 km/h

Correct Answer: (c) 180 km/h
Explanation: Vande Bharat Express trains are engineered for test speeds up to 180 km/h.

Question 37 Polity & Governance

In which List of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution does 'Railways' fall?

(a) State List (List II) (b) Concurrent List (List III) (c) Union List (List I) (d) Residuary List

Correct Answer: (c) Union List (List I)
Explanation: Railways (Item 22) falls strictly under the Union List giving Parliament exclusive powers.

Question 38 Literature & Awards

The 57th Jnanpith Award was conferred upon which noted Konkani writer?

(a) Damodar Mauzo (b) Nilmani Phookan (c) Gulzar (d) Jagadguru Rambhadracharya

Correct Answer: (a) Damodar Mauzo
Explanation: Renowned Konkani novelist Damodar Mauzo was awarded the 57th Jnanpith Award.

राजभाषा प्रश्नोत्तरी मॉक 04

राजभाषा मॉक 04

भाषा शिक्षण • राजभाषा प्रश्नोत्तरी

समय शेष: 02:00

1. राजभाषा (विधेयकों के हिन्दी अनुवाद के प्राधिकरण की रीति) नियम, 1976 के अनुसार सरकारी विधेयक या सरकार द्वारा प्रस्तावित किसी संशोधन के हिन्दी अनुवाद को कौन प्राधिकृत करता है?

A. लोकसभा के सचिवालय का अधिकारी B. संबंधित मंत्री C. राज्यसभा के सचिव D. गृह मंत्रालय का संयुक्त सचिव

2. राजभाषा (विधेयकों के हिन्दी अनुवाद के प्राधिकरण की रीति) नियम, 1976 कब से प्रभावी हुए?

A. 1 जनवरी, 1963 B. 26 जनवरी, 1976 C. 1 जनवरी, 1976 D. 1 अप्रैल, 1976

3. प्राइवेट सदस्य के विधेयक अथवा प्राइवेट सदस्य द्वारा प्रस्तावित संशोधन के हिन्दी अनुवाद को कौन प्राधिकृत करता है?

A. संबंधित मंत्री B. गृह मंत्रालय का अधिकारी C. राष्ट्रपति द्वारा नामित अधिकारी D. राज्यसभा या लोकसभा के सचिवालय का विधिवत् प्राधिकृत अधिकारी

⏱️ 2 मिनट पूरे होते ही टेस्ट स्वतः सबमिट हो जाएगा।

Rajbhasha Mock Test 3: UPSC, IBPS SO, SSC JHT | राजभाषा प्रश्नोत्तरी MCQ

Free Rajbhasha Mock Test 3 for UPSC, IBPS SO & SSC JHT

Welcome to Mockwala's Rajbhasha Mock Test 3. If you are preparing for the UPSC Assistant Director, IBPS SO (Rajbhasha Adhikari), or SSC JHT exams, mastering the Constitutional provisions and rules related to the Official Language is absolutely mandatory.

This bilingual online test is designed exactly on the latest exam pattern. It contains highly expected questions from the Official Language Act 1963, Rajbhasha Rules 1976, Parliamentary Committees, and the Annual Programme. Before you attempt the test, let's do a quick revision of some crucial points.

Quick Study Notes: Official Language Policy

• Article 343: States that the Official Language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.
• Article 351: It is the directive for the development of the Hindi language, ensuring it draws its vocabulary primarily from Sanskrit.
• Official Language Act, 1963 (Section 3(3)): Mandates 14 specific types of documents (like General Orders, Resolutions, Contracts, and Reports) to be issued bilingually in both Hindi and English.
• Regions under Rajbhasha Rules, 1976:
  • Region A: UP, MP, Bihar, Rajasthan, Haryana, HP, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Delhi, A&N Islands.
  • Region B: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, Chandigarh, Daman & Diu, Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
  • Region C: All other remaining states (e.g., West Bengal, Odisha, Southern states) except Tamil Nadu.
• Reply to Hindi Communications (Rule 5): Any communication received in Hindi must be replied to in Hindi only.

About This Mock Test

This mock test contains 30 high-level Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). You will have exactly 15 minutes to complete the test. The scoring system follows standard competitive exam rules: you will get +1 mark for every correct answer, and there is a negative marking of -0.25 marks for every incorrect answer. The test will auto-submit when the timer reaches zero.

Best of luck! Scroll down to start your test.

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राजभाषा प्रश्नोत्तरी-3

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English Mock Test - 04

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41. What is Syuzhet ?

• (a) It is the plot of the narrative
• (b) It was the dominant mode of academic literary study in the US
• (c) It is raw material of a story
• (d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (a) It is the plot of the narrative

42. From the four alternatives, choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The terrorists made a vain attempt to ________ the bridge.

• (a) blow down
• (b) blow out
• (c) blow over
• (d) blow up

Correct Answer: (d) blow up

43. Assonance is the repetition of identical or similar ________ in nearby words.

• (a) Consonants
• (b) Phrases
• (c) Syllables
• (d) Vowels

Correct Answer: (d) Vowels

44. Consider the following statements with reference to Coleridge theory of imagination.
1. The primary imagination is prime agent of all human perception.
2. The secondary imagination dissolves, diffuses and dissipates in order to recreate.

• (a) Only 1
• (b) Neither 1 nor 2
• (c) Only 2
• (d) Both 1 and 2

Correct Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

45. Which of the following arrangements of poems is correct in chronological sequence ?

• (a) "Adonais" – "Prelude" – "Don Juan" – "Endymion"
• (b) "Don Juan" – "Prelude" – "Adonais" – "Endymion"
• (c) "Endymion" – "Adonais" – "Don Juan" – "Prelude"
• (d) "Prelude" – "Don Juan" – "Adonais" – "Endymion"

Correct Answer: (c) "Endymion" – "Adonais" – "Don Juan" – "Prelude"

46. Direction : In the following question, the first and the last part of the sentence/passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the jumbled sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct ?

1. Vegetarianism promotes a natural way of life.
P. A vegetarian's life style is natural and healthy.
Q. Despite its message of universal love and non-violence, it has not spread.
R. It is best cultivated in the mind.
S. This may be because it is an inward looking habit.
6. Food and health are closely related.

• (a) QSRP
• (b) PRSQ
• (c) QRSP
• (d) PQRS

Correct Answer: (b) PRSQ

62. Match the words in List – A with their correct meaning in List – B.

List – A
1. Altruism | 2. Antagonist | 3. Antidote | 4. Aperture

List – B
i. Medication | ii. Opponent | iii. Selflessness | iv. An opening

• (a) 1 – iii, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 – iv
• (b) 1 – i, 2 – iv, 3 – iii, 4 – ii
• (c) 1 – iv, 2 – i, 3 – ii, 4 – iii
• (d) 1 – ii, 2 – iii, 3 – iv, 4 – i

Correct Answer: (a) 1 – iii, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 – iv

64. Fill in the blanks in the following passage.

Climate change ___1___ one ___2___ the most ___3___ contested environmental debates of our times, ___4___ the West Antarctic ice sheet melt entirely ? Will the Gulf stream ocean current ___5___ disrupted ? May be may be not ___6___ way Antarctica ___7___ a crucial element in this debate.

• (a) was, at, hot, can, was, neither, was
• (b) has, of, hotting, have, are, as, are
• (c) will, on, hotted, has, is, or, were
• (d) is, of, hotly, will, be, either, is

Correct Answer: (d) is, of, hotly, will, be, either, is

70. Choose the word that is closest in meaning to "make unauthorised changes."

• (a) temporal
• (b) temporary
• (c) tamper
• (d) temper

Correct Answer: (c) tamper

72. Choose the correct punctuated sentence from the four alternatives for the following sentences.

as caesar loved me I wept for him as he was fortunate I rejoice at it as he was valient i honour him but he was ambitious i slew him.

• (a) As Caesar loved me, I wept for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valient, I honour him; but as he was ambitious, I slew him.
• (b) As Caesar loved me – I wept for him, as he was fortunate – I rejoice at it, as he was valient – I honour him, but as he was ambitious – I slew him.
• (c) As Caesar loved him; I wept for him. As he was fortunate; I rejoice at it. As he was valient; I honour him. But as he was ambitious; I slew him.
• (d) As Caesar loved me, I wept for him. As he was fortunate, I rejoice at it. As he was valient, I honour him. But as he was ambitious, I slew him.

Correct Answer: (a) As Caesar loved me, I wept for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valient, I honour him; but as he was ambitious, I slew him.

74. In the following sentence, choose the correct alternative which would not change the meaning of the original sentence and be the apt substitute of the underlined word.

A conscientious worker is always admired by his employers.

• (a) Obedient
• (b) Careful
• (c) Skilful
• (d) Sincere

Correct Answer: (d) Sincere

75. Match the following homonyms which are similar in sound but different in meaning.

A. Antic        I. Bow
B. Bough      II. Oracle
C. Auricle     III. Conk
D. Conch      IV. Antique

• (a) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
• (b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
• (c) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
• (d) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV

Correct Answer: (a) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III

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